Post by mowlick on Mar 16, 2023 15:58:15 GMT
Let us assume that you are conducting a poll on behalf of the Free Beer Party.
Your sample is 1600.
So to find the error bound you find the square root of the sample (which is 40), express that as a percentage of the sample ( [40/1600] x 100 =2.5%) and there you are. You have the error which is +/- 2.5%
Easy peasy. In passing it is why pollsters don't bother with larger numbers. If the sample was 10,000 you would still only have an error bound of +/- 1%.
But my question is, where does the rule come from? I have browsed the internet and even offered mathematically inclined friends ready cash for an answer but to no avail.
Does anyone know?
Your sample is 1600.
So to find the error bound you find the square root of the sample (which is 40), express that as a percentage of the sample ( [40/1600] x 100 =2.5%) and there you are. You have the error which is +/- 2.5%
Easy peasy. In passing it is why pollsters don't bother with larger numbers. If the sample was 10,000 you would still only have an error bound of +/- 1%.
But my question is, where does the rule come from? I have browsed the internet and even offered mathematically inclined friends ready cash for an answer but to no avail.
Does anyone know?
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