Deleted
Deleted Member
Posts: 0
|
Post by Deleted on May 28, 2023 0:53:37 GMT
Illiteracy in the middle ages was about whether or not you could read latin, if a person could read and write English, German or French or all these three languages, but not latin the person would be considered illiteracy in the medieval ages. So when people say 90%+ people in the medieval time where illiterate, it just mean that 90%+ could not read or write in latin.
A person could read and write perfectly in German, but if this person could not read or write latin, the person would be considered illiterate, and that is why we should take the illiteracy rate from the medieval ages with a grain of salt, because we don`t know how many people who could read or write, English, German, French, or some other languages, we only know how many could read or write latin. Most likely there was at least one person in a house hold that could read and write, maybe not in latin but in the languages of the country they lived in. Of course the literacy rate was still a lot lower in the medieval ages than what it is today, but most likely not as low as many people think.
|
|
|
|
Post by PaulsLaugh on May 28, 2023 22:27:05 GMT
What did the people in the Middle Ages have to read? The average person couldn’t afford hand-copied books.
|
|
|
|
Post by mowlick on Jul 20, 2023 9:45:28 GMT
Illiteracy in the middle ages was about whether or not you could read latin, if a person could read and write English, German or French or all these three languages, but not latin the person would be considered illiteracy in the medieval ages. So when people say 90%+ people in the medieval time where illiterate, it just mean that 90%+ could not read or write in latin. A person could read and write perfectly in German, but if this person could not read or write latin, the person would be considered illiterate, and that is why we should take the illiteracy rate from the medieval ages with a grain of salt, because we don`t know how many people who could read or write, English, German, French, or some other languages, we only know how many could read or write latin. Most likely there was at least one person in a house hold that could read and write, maybe not in latin but in the languages of the country they lived in. Of course the literacy rate was still a lot lower in the medieval ages than what it is today, but most likely not as low as many people think. Well yes and no.
Up until the end of the Middle Ages there wasn't a standardised English (dunno about German or French), which resulted in Caxton's famous story about the eggs. So you might be literate in English, but it was pretty much limited to the English of Little Snorning, Loamshire
|
|
Deleted
Deleted Member
Posts: 0
|
Post by Deleted on Jul 21, 2023 7:55:41 GMT
Trying to correct me, when i am not wrong.
Ok
|
|
|
|
Post by 99999 on Aug 11, 2023 18:58:38 GMT
Daemon Targaryen , PaulsLaugh , mowlick , Ask yourselves, when was spelling in English standardized? Meanwhile, English spelling became even more standardised as dictionaries began to be published. Samuel Johnson's Dictionary of 1755 was a major standardising force.
|
|
|
|
Post by politicidal1 on Feb 7, 2024 0:26:26 GMT
What did the people in the Middle Ages have to read? The average person couldn’t afford hand-copied books. Signs that read “Trespassers will be hanged.” |
|
|
|
Post by PaulsLaugh on Feb 7, 2024 3:23:47 GMT
Only the wealthy could afford books, so there was little reason for the commoners to learn to read. Reading the Bible was forbidden without permission from the bishop. That Christian headstones often had runes or ogham on them though, indicates the country folk still used those for some communication.
|
|
